The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.
A. maintain steady pressure in a system
B. eliminate hot air from the condenser
C. heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid
D. reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates
If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?
A. The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat.
B. The refrigerant vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent heat.
C. The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat.
D. The refrigerant vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible heat.
What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such as a air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?
A. Counter flow
B. Series flow
C. Parallel flow
D. Cross flow
If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?
A. Sea water flows through the shells of both the lube oil and jacket water coolers.
B. Sea water flows through the tubes of the lube oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket water cooler.
C. Sea water flows through the tubes of the jacket water cooler and through the shell of the lube oil cooler.
D. Sea water flows through the tubes of both the lube oil and jacket water coolers.
If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true?
A. The number of fluid passes cannot be determined.
B. The tube-side fluid flow pattern is four-pass.
C. The tube-side fluid flow pattern is single-pass.
D. The tube-side fluid flow pattern is two-pass.
Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________.
A. solely by the charge applied by the accumulators
B. by resistance to the fluid flow through the system
C. only by the pump as its primary function
D. by the thermal input to the system's fluid
In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq. cm)?
A. 80 psi (5.63 kg/cm2)
B. 800 psi (56.31 kg/cm2)
C. 8,000 psi (563.1 kg/cm2)
D. 80,000 psi (5631 kg/cm2)
Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing an hydraulic oil's viscosity?
B. Pour point
C. Cloud point
The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally __________.
A. harmless and have no effect on system components
B. always neutralized by oil additives
C. gums, varnishes, and acids
D. removed by cellulose type filters
Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.
A. reservoir expansion chamber
B. hydraulic piping flexibility
C. atmosphere as heat
D. fluid as friction
The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________.
A. two-stage, pump unit
B. combined, pump unit
C. duplex, pump unit
D. parallel, pump unit
An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45??, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________.
A. is pilot controlled
B. allows flow in one direction only
C. can be adjusted or varied
D. is pressure compensated
Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________.
A. motor operated with one pump located in the engine room at the shaft alley door and the other in a common passage way
B. manually operated with one pump located at the shaft alley door and the other in a common passage way
C. motor operated with one pump located on the engine room side and the other on the shaft alley side of the watertight door
D. manually operated with one pump located in the engine room and the other in the shaft alley of the watertight door
The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________.
A. combined pump unit
B. series-flow pump unit
C. two-stage pump unit
D. double pump unit
Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________.
A. shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has closed
B. act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F"
C. act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E"
D. shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed
Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the __________.
The component which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.
Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented by figure __________.
A. A or B
B. A or C
C. B or C
D. C or D
The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength is the __________.
A. inner tube
B. outer cover
C. outer armor
D. braided inner layer(s)
The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is __________.
A. increased by adding a shorter cylinder block
B. fixed by the pump housing angle
C. decreased by adding a longer cylinder block
D. increased by adding a longer cylinder block
To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done?
A. Provide one additional slot and vane.
B. Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
C. Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.
D. Double the casing thickness.
In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by __________.
Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to __________.
A. prevent moisture accumulation
B. prevent vacuum formation
C. prevent foaming
D. accommodate thermal expansion
Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying both positive and negative pressures?
A. Simplex gauge
B. Differential pressure gauge
C. Duplex gauge
D. Compound gauge
Which of the following direct reading gauges would most likely be used in the application of a pump suction pressure gauge?
A. Differential pressure gauge
B. Vacuum gauge
C. Compound gauge
D. Standard pressure gauge
Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and displaying the difference between the two?
A. Simplex gauge
B. Compound gauge
C. Differential pressure gauge
D. Duplex gauge
Which of the following system applications would require the use of a siphon tube (pigtail) to prevent gauge damage?
A. Hydraulic oil pressure
B. Heavy fuel oil
C. Compressed air pressure
D. Steam pressure
When reading a pressure that fluctuates severely on a direct reading pressure gauge, what should be done?
A. Attempt to determine the midpoint between the maximum and minimum pressures and use this as an estimate of the average pressure.
B. The pulsation dampening needle valve should be throttled down (without closing) until the fluctuation ceases.
C. The maximum and minimum pressures should be noted and added together and divided by two to obtain the average pressure.
D. The pulsation dampening needle valve should be opened wider until the fluctuation ceases.
If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?
A. 29.1 psia
B. 43.8 psia
C. 58.5 psia
D. 61.2 psia
When determining the level of a potable water hydro-pneumatic header tank fitted with a tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?
A. The sight glass must be drained, blown down, and re-filled before each reading is taken.
B. The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is somewhat higher than the level shown in the sight glass.
C. The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is somewhat lower than the level shown in the sight glass.
D. The actual water level in the hydro-pneumatic header tank is identical to the level shown in the sight glass.
What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?
A. Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank, and ullage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank.
B. Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and bottom of the tank, and ullage is the distance between the oil/water interface and the top of the tank.
C. Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and top of the tank, and ullage is the distance between the oil/water interface and the bottom of the tank.
D. Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank, and ullage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank.
What is the operating principle upon which a bubble tube system operates in indicating liquid tank level?
A. The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the top of the tank is proportional to the liquid level in the tank.
B. The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the bottom of the tank is inversely related to the liquid level in the tank.
C. The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the bottom of the tank is proportional to the liquid level in the tank.
D. The air pressure required to force air bubbles into the liquid near the top of the tank is inversely related to the liquid level in the tank.
What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a vented tank?
A. Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube attach to an end at an opening at the top of the tank.
B. The vent pipe attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the sounding tube passes through the tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.
C. Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube pass through the tank top and extend almost to the tank bottom.
D. The sounding tube attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the vent pipe passes through the tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.
In what application would a reflex type flat gauge glass be used?
A. Indicating a fresh water level, where the water is clear.
B. Indicating a lubricating oil level, where the oil is honey colored.
C. Indicating a heavy fuel oil level, where the fuel is dark.
D. Indicating a chemically treated water level, where the water is brightly colored.
What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?
A. The bob has a cupped end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
B. The bob has a pointed end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
C. The bob has a cupped end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.
D. The bob has a pointed end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.
What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?
A. The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.
B. The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
C. The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
D. The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.
If a thermometer reads 80oC, what is the equivalent temperature in oF?
If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be done to correct this situation?
A. After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the lower end and try to recombine the mercury by several full arm swings.
B. Repeatedly tap the side of the thermometer until the mercury recombines.
C. After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the upper end and try to recombine the mercury by several full arm swings.
D. It is not possible to correct this situation.
What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?
A. Bimetallic thermometer
B. Liquid-in-glass thermometer
C. Bourdon tube thermometer
D. Thermocouple pyrometer
If a thermometer reads 850oF, what is the equivalent temperature in oC?
What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?
A. Lime-based grease
B. Lithium-based grease
C. Calcium-based grease
D. Aluminum-based grease
If an engine lubricating oils viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what is the significant difference between the two lubricating oils?
A. The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature service) and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service.
B. The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service.
C. The SAE 20W oil is primarily designed for year-round (low and high ambient temperature service) and SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service.
D. The SAE 20W oil is primarily intended for high ambient temperature service, and the SAE 20 oil is primarily intended for low ambient temperature service.
What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?
A. An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the pressure changes.
B. An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the temperature changes.
C. An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the pressure changes.
D. An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the temperature changes.
If an engine lubricating oils viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?
A. The oil is formulated to meet the low temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the 100oC (high) temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
B. The oil is formulated to meet the 100oC (high) temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the low temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
C. The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
D. The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50W oil and as such is a year-round oil.
For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?
A. As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil may increase or decrease, depending upon the lubricant.
B. As the temperature of a lubricating oil varies in either direction, the viscosity of the lubricating oil remains constant.
C. As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil also increases.
D. As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil decreases.
The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How is this temperature normally controlled?
A. The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating by the admission of combustion air into the combustion chamber.
B. The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of auxiliary fuel to the burner.
C. The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the exhaust gas flow.
D. The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of relatively cool ambient air into the exhaust stream.
One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________.
A. act solely as a heat exchanger
B. act as a cyclonic pneumatic dehydrator
C. provide storage for compressed cryogenic gases
D. act as a lube oil sump
The unloading system on an air compressor will __________.
A. increase compressor operating speed as necessary
B. reduce the compressor frictional load when starting
C. increase compressor discharge pressure on demand
D. allow the motor to turn the compressor opposed only by friction
Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety valve?
A. The actuator closing spring on a relief valve is in a compressed state whereas the actuator closing spring on a safety valve acts in tension.
B. Relief valves are capable of being gagged whereas safety valves are not.
C. A relief valve gradually opens as pressure increases above set point pressure whereas a safety valve fully opens at the set point pressure.
D. The blow down of a relief valve is greater than the blow down of a safety valve.
The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically operated as __________.
A. a diesel engine air start unit only
B. a constant pressure unit while operating under all load conditions
C. an on-off cycle unit
D. a constant capacity unit
The primary function of the device illustrated is to __________.
A. remove all but the frictional load of an air compressor at start-up
B. intensify the pressure developed by an air compressor during its normal running operation
C. pre-charge the cylinders of an air compressor prior to the start-up of the unit
D. open the discharge valves during the compressor s operation to supply compressed air
The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________.
A. pump refrigerant
B. generate electricity
C. compress air
D. pump heavy liquids
The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______.
A. oily bilge water outlet
B. oily bilge water inlet
C. processed oil outlet
D. clean water flushing line
The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________.
A. direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed
B. support the tank access panel
C. prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water
D. allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid
The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______.
A. oil discharge line
B. clean water flushing line
C. oily bilge water inlet
D. tank drain line
Which of the valves listed for the device shown in illustration will be open while the unit is operating in the back flush mode?
A. valve "4"
B. valves "4" and "5"
C. valves "4" and "14"
D. valves "4", "5", and "14"
In the operation of a lube oil clarifier, the position of the oil/water interface should be __________.
B. maintained by the number of disks in the disk stack
C. maintained by the diaphragm-type, weir control valve
D. maintained by the ring dam
A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?
B. Diesel fuel
C. Carbon particles
D. Fuel oil
Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?
A. Diesel fuel oil
B. Metal particles
D. Carbon particles
When water is removed from lube oil passing through a centrifugal purifier, the water removed will __________.
A. force the diameter of the oil column within the bowl to be narrowed
B. be retained in the bowl
C. displace water from the heavy phase discharge port, but of an amount less than that removed from the oil
D. displace an equal amount of water from the bowl seal
Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on an auxiliary boiler, are __________.
A. automatically supplied with warmer air on demand
B. automatically supplied with more fuel on demand
C. equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers
D. cycled on and off in response to steam demand
Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?
A. Combustion gases flow through the tubes.
B. Flames impinge on the tubes.
C. Combustion occurs in the tubes.
D. Water flows through the tubes.
A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system __________.
A. opens the burner circuit upon sensing a flame failure
B. detects a flame failure by monitoring radiant heat from glowing refractory
C. requires mechanical linkage to secure the burner fuel supply
D. must be bypassed at low firing rates
The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent __________.
A. accidental dry firing and overpressure
B. uncontrolled fires in the furnace
C. explosions in the boiler furnace
D. overheating of the pressure parts
Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to __________.
A. provide a means of draining the boiler
B. warn the engineer of low water level
C. cool the crown sheet at high firing rates
D. open the burners' electrical firing circuits
In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler, __________.
A. steam demand response is comparatively rapid
B. steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler
C. unevaporated feed water is discharged through the skim tube
D. steam demand response is slow
The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by __________.
A. girder stays
B. fire-tubes and stay-tubes
C. external boiler plating
D. separate crown sheets
The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________.
A. forced circulation, coil-type
B. single-pass, fire-tube, scotch marine
C. two-pass, scotch marine
D. two-pass, water-tube
Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to __________.
A. completely drain the boiler in an emergency
B. prevent sludge from forming in the steam drum
C. remove floating impurities from the boiler water surface
D. remove settled solids from the water drum
Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging?
C. Fuel oil
D. Lube oil
For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable __________.
B. additive percent
C. Cetane number
D. TBN number
Which of the following technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation device?
A. Biological treatment plant
B. Chemical treatment plant
C. Sewage holding tank
D. Direct overboard sewage discharge
By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge overboard?
A. Disinfection is not required on biological sewage treatment plants.
B. Ultraviolet light irradiation is the only approved means of disinfection.
C. Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution and ultraviolet irradiation are both approved means of disinfection.
D. Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution is the only approved means of disinfection.
If a biological sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential order of treatment chambers within the plant?
A. Sedimentation, disinfection, aeration
B. Disinfection, aeration, sedimentation
C. Aeration, sedimentation, disinfection
D. Sedimentation, aeration, disinfection
Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?
A. The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps promote settling in the aeration chamber.
B. The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps promote settling in the aeration chamber.
C. The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber.
D. The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber.
What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time constraints associated with its use?
A. Emergency escape breathing apparatus
B. Powered air-purifying respirator
C. Reusable full-mask respirator
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus
What statement is true concerning portable power tools?
A. A power tool fitted with a three conductor cable and three-prong plug may be safely used with an ungrounded outlet as long as a three prong receptacle to two prong plug adapter is used.
B. Power tools other than those as approved as double-insulated require the use of two conductor cables, two-prong plugs, and ungrounded receptacles.
C. Unless the power tool is an approved double-insulated type, an ungrounded power tool has the potential to cause a fatal accident due to electrical shock.
D. Double-insulated power tools require the use of three conductor cables, three-prong plugs, and grounded receptacles.
Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the proper technique for lifting an object?
A. Bend over and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
B. Bend the knees and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
C. Bend over and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.
D. Bend the knees and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.
What statement is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to manipulate threaded fasteners?
A. When extra leverage is needed for wrenches and drive tools, the use of a cheater bar is recommended.
B. Push wrenches and drive tool handles rather than pull them for greater control and balance and to avoid injury.
C. Six point sockets are less prone to slippage than twelve point sockets.
D. For initial breaking loose and final tightening of fasteners, the use of open end wrenches is recommended.
What type of eye protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne impact hazards?
A. Full-face shield
B. Side-shielded safety glasses
C. Eyecup or cover-type safety goggles
D. Full-face shield and safety goggles
The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.
A. rolling member size
B. inner race cone width
C. manufacturer's numerical code
D. outer ring width
Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?
A. They have a relatively high power loss due to friction.
B. They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time.
C. Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention.
D. They are well adapted to variable speed operation.
Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?
A. Thrust bearing
B. Piston pin bushing
C. Spring bearing
D. All of the above.
An example of an antifriction bearing is a __________.
A. line shaft or spring bearing
B. Kingsbury thrust bearing
C. rubber cutlass strut bearing
D. ball bearing
Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?
C. Tapered roller
Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?
A. They have a greater tolerance for high-speed applications.
B. They are subject to less pitting and metal fatigue.
C. They have a greater contact area.
D. They are installed with tighter clearances.
In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________.
A. spring force
B. a pressure gun
C. a Zerk fitting
D. gravity flow
To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________.
A. 10-25% of the original void space in the bearing
B. 25-50% of the original void space in the bearing
C. 50-75% of the original void space in the bearing
D. 75-95% of the original void space in the bearing
Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that ______
A. all air pockets are vented from the grease
B. dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing
C. the grease is properly distributed within the bearing
D. a path of expansion is provided for the grease
When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.
A. apply even pressure to the outer race
B. apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races
C. apply even force to the inner race
D. tap the outer race with a mallet
Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?
A. An acetylene torch and hammer
B. A tapered 'come-a-long'
C. A steel drift pin and hammer
D. An arbor press
Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?
A. The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.
B. The outer race should be free to turn in its housing.
C. Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
D. They are usually pressed onto their shafts.
Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.
A. excessive channeling of the grease
B. high temperatures to develop as result of churning
C. emulsification of the thickener additive
D. gelling of the base oil
A ball bearing will overheat if __________.
A. filled with grease to 65% of the total open spaces within the bearing
B. operated at designed high-speed
C. completely packed full of grease
D. in use for a long time
When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are recommended?
A. Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint should be applied in parallel strokes only.
B. Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint should be applied in cross strokes only.
C. Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint should be applied in cross strokes only.
D. Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint should be applied in parallel strokes only.
When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to minimize bimetallic corrosion?
A. The plates should be electrically insulated from one another by use of non-conductive gaskets and non-conductive ferrule sleeves with the bolts.
B. The plates should be bonded together electrically by joining the plates by a bonding strap in addition to bolting together.
C. Steel and aluminum are so close together on the Noble series that no particular provision need be made for bolting steel and aluminum plates together.
D. The plates should be bolted together in such a way as to ensure good electrical contact between the plates.
What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?
Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?
A. Dirt, oil and grease must be removed. Rust and mill scale may remain.
B. All dirt, rust and mill scale must be removed. Oil and grease can remain.
C. All dirt, oil, grease, rust, mill scale, and loose paint must be removed.
D. All previous paint must be removed.
In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?
A. Chipping hammer
C. Wire brush
D. Hand scraper
What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?
A. Thoroughly mixing paint by pouring paint back and forth between two cans.
B. Thoroughly mixing paint by using a mechanical stirrer.
C. Removing the "skin" that has formed on the surface of the paint in the can.
D. Stacking paint cans within a suitable box.
Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?
A. Whenever there is a break in the actual maintenance activity.
B. Whenever you feel that it is safe to do so.
C. Only when the tags have been removed by an authorized person.
D. Whenever permission is granted by your supervisor.
Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?
A. Whenever you feel that it is safe to do so.
B. Whenever permission is granted by your supervisor.
C. Whenever there is a break in the actual maintenance activity.
D. Under NO circumstances should the equipment be operated when tagged.
Under what conditions is a CAUTION tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?
A. When operation of the equipment will harm the equipment ONLY.
B. When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel ONLY.
C. When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel OR harm the equipment.
D. When operation of the equipment requires temporary special instructions to be provided.
When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?
What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-water separator?
A. The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that sink to the bottom of the filter housing.
B. The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that sink to the bottom of the filter housing.
C. The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that rise to the top of the filter housing.
D. The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that rise to the top of the filter housing.
Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operationa
A. The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
B. The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
C. The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
D. The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water discharging overboard with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?
A. Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
B. Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
C. Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
D. Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific gravity differential between the oil and water.
A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by __________.
A. pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container
B. holding all sewage onboard
C. treating sewage in an approved system
D. all of the above
Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?
A. Flash point
C. Pour point
D. Specific gravity
Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?
B. Fire point
C. Specific gravity
D. Flash point
When heated, fuel oil will __________.
A. have a higher specific heat
B. increase in specific gravity
C. increase in viscosity
D. expand in volume
The main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is to __________.
A. prevent loss of suction during rough weather
B. facilitate water removal
C. decrease suction head on the pump
D. increase the amount of fuel available for use
The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.
C. open cup test
What application often requires a valve to be remotely operated from a control station, where the valve itself is operated by an electric, pneumatic, or hydraulic motor?
A. A small valve that is routinely operated during plant operations.
B. A large valve that is routinely operated during plant operations.
C. A large valve that is rarely operated during plant operations.
D. A small valve that is rarely operated during plant operations.
Where is the location of a chain-operated valve when a chain wheel is attached to the stem and is associated with an endless chain for operation?
A. The valve is located too far directly above the deck where it is operated from.
B. The valve is located too far directly across from the location where it is operated.
C. The valve is located too far directly below the deck where it is operated from.
D. A chain-operated valve can be used in any of the applications listed above.
What is the purpose of the torque limit switch as fitted on an electric motor operated rising stem gate valve?
A. The torque limit switch protects the valve from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully opening.
B. The torque limit switch protects the motor from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully opening.
C. The torque limit switch protects the motor from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully closing.
D. The torque limit switch protects the valve from being damaged if a foreign object prevents the valve from fully closing.
In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?
A. A valve located in a compressed air line.
B. A valve located in a potable water transfer line.
C. A valve located in a sea water cooling line.
D. A valve located in a fuel oil transfer line.
Remote valve operators are frequently fitted with a hand wheel for local operation if the motor fails. If this is so, what is the procedure for local manual control?
A. First move the lever to disengage the motor clutch, and then rotate the hand wheel.
B. Just rotate the hand wheel in the appropriate direction for valve operation.
C. First move the lever to engage the motor clutch, and then rotate the hand wheel.
D. Motor operated valves are generally not fitted with local hand wheels.
On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?
A. Fifteen minutes before the hour
B. Thirty minutes before the hour
C. On the hour
D. Fifteen minutes after the hour
In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm response would be the most immediately critical?
A. M/E low lube oil pressure alarm
B. M/E high coolant temperature alarm
C. E/R fixed CO2 impending release alarm
D. General emergency alarm
On vessels exceeding 1600 GRT, who is responsible for the practical upkeep of machinery and the manning of the engine room?
A. Chief mate
B. Chief engineer
C. Officer in charge of the engineering watch
D. First assistant engineer
The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V??? indicates __________.
A. the first pass of the weld is to be back gouged
B. the arrow side of the weld is to be surface finished
C. the opposite side of the weld is to be surface finished
D. a "V" groove weld is to be made
When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________.
A. control penetration
B. reduce metal fatigue and warpage
C. increase heat transfer
D. reduce oxidation
A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles to each other, and is called a __________.
A. seam weld
B. tack weld
C. plug weld
D. fillet weld
In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a __________.
A. double fillet weld only
B. U-weld over a backing ring
C. plug and slot weld
D. V-weld over a backing ring
Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is the negative pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________.
A. inert-arc welding circuit
B. reverse polarity welding circuit
C. straight polarity welding circuit
D. shielded-arc welding circuit
Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weld?
Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an oxyacetylene torch?
A. Open the acetylene valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the oxygen valve.
B. Open the oxygen valve very slightly to light-off and then open and adjust the acetylene valve.
C. Open the acetylene valve very slightly and the oxygen valve the same amount to light-off.
D. Open the oxygen valve wide open and the acetylene valve slightly to light-off.
Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxyacetylene regulators and torches?
A. The torch oxygen inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".
B. The acetylene regulator hose outlet thread connection is "right handed".
C. The oxygen regulator hose outlet thread connection is "left handed".
D. The torch acetylene inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".
When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should close the __________.
A. cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and regulators is zero
B. cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hoses
C. cylinder valves only
D. hand valves on the torch only
When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, __________.
A. open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG
B. a flashback of flame into the hose is normal
C. a leaking hose must be repaired by binding with tape
D. open the acetylene cylinder valve only 1/4 to 1/2 turn and leave the wrench on the valve stem
With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an __________.
A. nitriding fusion
B. neutral flame
C. carburizing flame
D. oxidizing flame
Solder is an alloy of __________.
A. copper and lead
B. beryllium and antimony
C. tin and lead
D. silicon and selenium
Tinning a soldering iron will __________.
A. add extra weight to the tip
B. prevent the tip from overheating
C. prevent tip oxidation when heated
D. protect the tip from scratches
Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.
A. ensure proper tinning
B. make the solder "flow"
C. decrease the melting point of the solder
D. clean the joint area
The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal __________.
The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.
When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties are achieved?
A. increase in brittleness
B. increase in corrosion resistance
C. increase in hardening
D. decrease in brittleness
Ferrous metals are metals containing __________.
A. a large percentage of copper
B. no iron
C. a large percentage of aluminum
D. a large percentage of iron
Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.
A. case hardening
B. low temperature hardening
The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________.
A. curling tool
B. hurling tool
C. furling tool
D. knurling tool
The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the __________.
A. nose angle
B. working relief angle
C. side rake angle
D. side relief angle
Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing tool?
A. Figure P
B. Figure S
C. Figure T
D. Figure V
Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for figure I?
The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter __________.
A. allows for misaligned center holes
B. has a spring loaded catch
C. has a headless set screw
D. is more easily centered
The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as __________.
A. universal turning tools
B. parting tools
C. form tools
D. curvature cutting tools
The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________.
A. left cut side-facing tool
B. right side end facing tool
C. cutting-off tool
D. universal turning tool
Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?
A. Cast iron
B. Soft brass
D. Mild steel
To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch work piece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over __________.
A. 3/8 inch
B. 1/2 inch
C. 3/4 inch
D. 7/8 inch
The 60?? taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily machined by the __________.
A. taper attachment
B. tailstock set over method
C. headstock set over method
D. compound rest
For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a __________.
A. compound rest
B. draw-in collet chuck
C. steady rest
To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________.
A. any line on the dial
B. any unnumbered half line
C. odd numbered lines only
D. even numbered lines only
Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?
A. The jaws on the three-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
B. Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-centering, it is always more accurate than the four-jaw independent chuck.
C. The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
D. The three-jaw chuck will hold square, round, and irregular shapes in either a concentric or an eccentric position.
Two separate work pieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change in the __________.
A. diameter of the work piece
B. angle of the cutting tool
C. length of the work piece
D. none of the above
If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessively increased, the tool will __________.
A. take a deeper cut in the work
B. slip in the tool post
D. take a shallow cut
A work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.
A. closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset
B. toward you to correct alignment
C. away from you to correct alignment
D. away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment
When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch produced is determined by the speed relationship between the __________.
A. lead screw and headstock spindle
B. drive motor and spindle
C. spindle and feed rod
D. lead screw and feed rod
To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the __________.
A. feed-change lever
B. back gear lever
C. thread-chasing dial
D. split or half-nut
Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a __________.
B. lathe dog
C. crotch center
A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it __________.
A. is dead centered on the tailstock spindle
B. must be removed by clamping in the chuck
C. fits into the dead center of the work piece
D. does not revolve
To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________.
A. any numbered line on the dial
B. even numbered lines only
C. odd numbered lines only
D. any line on the dial
If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the work piece tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should __________.
A. stop the lathe and tighten the chuck
B. increase the lathe spindle speed
C. increase the height of the tool cutting edge
D. stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center
To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing shim, you should use a __________.
A. machinist's rule
B. feeler gage
D. depth gage
Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to __________.
A. click at each increment of measure
B. prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force
C. stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel
D. eliminate ratchet movement
What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration?
A. 0.2280 inch
B. 0.2340 inch
C. 0.2470 inch
D. 0.2520 inch
A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________.
A. 40 threads per inch
B. 50 threads per inch
C. 75 threads per inch
D. 100 threads per inch
The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an __________.
A. outside micrometer
B. dial indicator
C. engineer's scale
D. thread micrometer
A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to __________.
A. 2 5/8 inches
B. 2 7/16 inches
C. 3 1/8 inches
D. 3 9/16 inches
The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is __________.
A. 2.308 inches
B. 2.368 inches
C. 2.380 inches
D. 2.965 inches
The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when __________.
A. a dial lights on the handle
B. the scale is read on the handle
C. the dial is read on the handle
D. an audible click is heard and the handle releases
For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a vernier scale making it possible to read in increments of __________.
A. five thousands of an inch
B. ten thousands of an inch
C. twenty five thousands of an inch
D. one fortieth of an inch
The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is __________.
A. 0.4710 inch
B. 0.4715 inch
C. 0.4810 inch
D. 0.4815 inch
Ball peen hammers are sized according to their __________.
A. overall length
B. face diameter
C. head weight
D. peen head size
A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a __________.
A. main turbine bearing
B. condensate pump ball bearing
C. diesel engine wrist pin bearing
D. generator crosshead bearing
The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is __________.
A. a gasket cutter
B. a pair of tin snips
C. a jack knife
D. a ball peen hammer
The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a __________.
A. gasket cutter
C. flange spreader
D. spud wrench
When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should __________.
A. reduce cutting speed and pressure
B. increase cutting speed and pressure
C. change to a finer cut blade
D. stop applying the cutting fluid
Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quarters or flush to a surface where a hand-held hacksaw frame could not be used?
A. Coping saw
B. Stab saw
C. Hole saw
D. Back saw
To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number of teeth per inch?
A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you __________.
A. file a nick where the cut is to be started
B. turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame
C. coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut
D. apply maximum pressure at the start of the cut
Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the __________.
A. front of the hacksaw frame
B. backward stroke
C. forward stroke
D. top of the hacksaw frame
To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the __________.
A. teeth should point toward the handle
B. blade can be installed in any position for normal use
C. blade should be kept loose in the frame
D. teeth should point away from the handle
A hacksaw blade will break if __________.
A. too much pressure is applied to the blade
B. the blade becomes loose in the frame
C. the rate of cutting is too great
D. all the above
When using a hand-held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cutting should be __________.
A. 10 to 20 strokes per minute
B. 80 to 100 strokes per minute
C. 40 to 50 strokes per minute
D. 70 to 80 strokes per minute
The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the __________.
D. thread gauge
Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridges resembling the ridges of a splined socket wrench?
B. Reed and Prince
Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical cross-sectional tip?
Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil wire or tightly coiled steel?
A. Square shank
C. Flexible shaft
An offset screwdriver is best used for __________.
A. tightening Allen head screws only
B. tightening or loosening "offset type" machine screws
C. screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver
D. driving self-tapping screws only
Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of small parts?
A. Square shanked
B. Allen head
Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?
A. Standard screwdriver
B. Phillips screwdriver
C. Reed and Prince screwdriver
D. Both B and C are correct
Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have __________.
A. insulated handles
B. larger than normal shanks
C. shorter than normal shanks
D. longer than normal shanks
Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to __________.
A. prevent the shank from bending
B. allow turning with a wrench
C. permit striking with a hammer
D. allow it to be used as a pry bar
It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are filing is __________.
C. mild steel
D. stainless steel
Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?
B. Second cut
A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of __________.
A. monel stock using heavy pressure
B. brass stock using heavy pressure
C. stainless steel stock using light pressure
D. bronze stock using light pressure
Double cut files are most effective when used for __________.
A. finish work
B. rough work
C. draw filing
D. sharpening tools
Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become __________.
Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is called __________.
A. standard form filing
B. cross filing
C. draw filing
D. stroke filing
A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file __________.
C. dressing tool
Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?
A. A double cut file
B. A single cut file
C. Any bastard cut file
D. Only a double bastard cut file
Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and used to enlarge rectangular-shaped holes and slots?
C. Half round
D. None of the above
The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________.
A. distance between the parallel cuts of a file
B. size of the file
C. coarseness of file teeth
D. both A and C are correct
A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because __________.
A. pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eyes
B. it must be held firmly by the head to strike it
C. the chisel cannot be struck squarely
D. the hammer head may be chipped
What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed head?
A. Remove the ragged edges by grinding.
B. Knock off the ragged edges with a hammer.
C. Use only light hammer blows with the chisel.
D. Do not strike the mushroomed portion.
Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting __________.
A. V-grooves and inside sharp angles
B. oil grooves in bearings
C. keyways having square corners
D. holes through metal plate
The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you __________.
A. soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods
B. hold it next to a wet grinding wheel
C. grind the cutting angle too small
D. grind it for long periods of time with excessive pressure
Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?
A. Square nose
B. Diamond point
C. Round nose
D. Flat cold
Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its hole?
A. Prick punch
B. Drift punch
C. Center punch
D. Aligning punch
The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the __________.
A. round nose chisel
B. cape chisel
C. flat cold chisel
D. diamond point chisel
When using a chisel, you should __________.
A. wear gloves
B. be certain it is a non-sparking type
C. hold the tool lightly
D. wear safety glasses
An aligning punch is commonly used to __________.
A. line up corresponding holes in adjacent symmetrical parts
B. tighten tapered pins
C. loosen jammed bolts
D. remove snap rings
In order to tighten the bolts of a crank pin bearing to the exact tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an __________.
A. offset box end
B. torque wrench
C. dial wrench
D. hook spanner
Open end wrenches are __________.
A. intended for gripping round objects
B. used with a speeder handle
C. nonadjustable solid wrenches
D. not suitable for tubing fittings
Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of its slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt?
A. Open end wrench
B. Box end wrench
C. Crescent wrench
D. Monkey wrench
Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a __________.
A. strong back
B. chain pipe wrench
C. basin wrench
D. monkey wrench
Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________.
A. tighten electrical wire clamps
B. grasp items positioned in tight places
C. cut recessed cotter pins
D. strip insulation from electric wire or cable
The open end wrench size for a 3/4 inch American National Standard hex head machine bolt is __________.
A. 3/4 inch
B. 7/8 inch
C. 1 1/4 inches
D. 1 1/2 inches
A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when __________.
A. the wrench jaws are at the widest open setting
B. the bite is taken midway up the jaw teeth
C. a maximum pull is exerted with one hand
D. an extension is placed on the wrench handle
If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.
A. start tapping with a plug tap
B. chamfer the edges of the holes
C. flood the tap with mineral oil
D. tap the holes without cutting oil
When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.
A. taper tap
B. bottoming tap
C. plug tap
D. finishing tap
If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the threads will __________.
A. straighten out after the third revolution
B. be out of round on the work
C. be cut crooked on the work
D. be rough, weak, and easily broken
The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.
The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.
A. pipe fittings
B. machinist's hand taps
C. measuring instruments
D. drill press parts
With respect to machine shop "taps and dies" a plug tap is correctly used for __________.
A. reversing the threads in a hole
B. the second cut when threading a blind hole
C. chasing the threads on a circular rod
D. starting the threads on a circular rod
If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?
A. Use a tapered screw extractor only.
B. Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch.
C. Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud.
D. Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor.
The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to __________.
A. secure tapered pins in position
B. fasten pump casing flanges together
C. assist in securing a coupling half to its shaft
D. bolt motor frames to bedplates
Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screw?
A. figure G
B. figure L
C. figure C
D. figure D
The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.
A. threaded with national coarse threads
B. made of nickel-cadmium metal
C. made of non-corrosive metal
D. not clad with any coating
What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustration?
A. The transit washers transmit the rotary motion of the cap screw to the actuating assembly.
B. The locking plates are used to prevent the fastening devices from vibrating loose.
C. The grounding straps help prevent electrolysis by improving the conductivity between the components.
D. These abrasion resistors prevent damage to the surface around the bolt holes when tightening the bolts.
The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devices?
With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, 'pitch' is the __________.
A. angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread
B. angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
C. number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw
D. distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads
Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screw?
A. figure A
B. figure F
C. figure G
D. figure L
Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?
A. Cap nut
B. Castellated nut
C. Wing nut
D. Square nut
Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside measurements?
To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.
B. steel rule
D. scribing circle
The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.
A. check the angle of thread cutting tools
B. locate the center on round stock
C. find right angles
D. check degrees of angle
Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet metal?
A. Inside micrometer
B. Circular mil
C. Wire gauge
D. Gauge calibrator
To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.
A. hook rule
B. flexible steel rule
C. folding rule
D. machinist's steel rule
The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________.
A. gage resistors
B. strip insulation from wire
C. measure wire diameter
D. measure insulation thickness
A metal scribe commonly found on a Combination Square measuring tool should only be used to __________.
A. clean file teeth
B. punch gasket holes
C. remove packing
D. mark on metal
A dial indicator is used to measure __________.
A. shaft eccentricity
B. torque of a shaft
C. scribed layout lines on vertical surfaces
D. positive readings only
To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should measure __________.
A. on the unmarked edge of the rule
B. from the one inch graduation mark
C. on the narrow edge of the rule
D. from the zero end on the scale
Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gage?
All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.
A. electric shock if the tool is shorted
B. grounding the plastic case through a short
C. burning out the motor from an overload
D. overloading the motor from a short
A grinding wheel is trued with a __________.
A. dressing tool
B. round file
C. lathe tool
D. garnet stone
A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the __________.
A. heat of friction
B. blade from overheating
C. cut from clogging
D. blade from bending
Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding machine?
A. Wear goggles or face shield.
B. Be certain that the frame is properly grounded.
C. Be properly trained in the use of this tool.
D. Each of the above practices.
The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed with the teeth __________.
A. pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth blade
B. pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine
C. pointing away from the motor end of the machine
D. pointing toward the motor end of the machine
The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.
A. discharge head
B. total head
C. suction head
D. net positive suction head
The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to __________.
A. lubricate the packing
B. distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box
C. seal air from entering along the shaft
D. cool the shaft
Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?
A. Suction head
B. Pump head
C. Discharge head
D. Total head
The shaft sleeve for the pump illustrated is identified by the item numbered as __________.
Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.
A. wearing rings
B. internally flooded lantern rings
C. renewable sleeves
D. a hardened sprayed metal coating
The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed is to __________.
A. closely observe the pump discharge temperature
B. momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
C. use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
D. close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
A pump is defined as a device that __________.
A. produces pressure
B. creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations
C. is to develop a pressure differential
D. imparts energy to a fluid to move it from point "A" to point "B"
Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?
A. They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.
B. They are always mounted in a horizontal position.
C. The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller.
D. They are started with the discharge valve opened.
A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming __________.
A. to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure
B. in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line
C. primarily to lubricate the shaft seals
D. due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye)
The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.
A. separate air from the liquid being pumped
B. directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
C. directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped
D. convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy
Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by __________.
A. lantern rings between the packing rings
B. a compressed packing gland
C. a liquid seal
D. the stuffing box gland
To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried out?
A. Operating the pump slowly and applying oil freely to the shaft until the packing is properly seated.
B. Tightening the gland in all the way and then backing it off slightly.
C. Lubricate the lantern ring with cylinder oil before installing new turns of packing.
D. Tighten the packing in small increments while the pump is operating.
A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.
A. reconditioned by metalizing and machining
B. straightened by applying heat and torsion
C. replaced with a satisfactory spare
D. repaired by a suitable welding process
Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?
A. Scoring may result.
B. Bonnet corrosion may result.
C. Heat transfer is restricted.
D. Valve seat will be damaged.
When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.
A. loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
B. loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
C. left in that position
D. tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing
What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?
A. Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
B. Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
C. Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
D. Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.
When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?
A. Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.
B. Replace all of the packing rings.
C. For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
D. Block off the sealing water connection.
A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required?
A. Throttle in on the discharge valve.
B. Replace the wearing rings.
C. Replace the lantern rings.
D. Throttle in on the suction valve.
One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a __________.
A. reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump
B. volute in the propeller type pump
C. velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump
D. volute in the centrifugal type pump
Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump?
A. Fuel oil service booster system
B. Fluid power transmission system
C. Steering gear system
D. Main circulating system
Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at relatively low pressures?
A. gear type
B. reciprocating type
C. screw type
D. propeller type
The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to __________.
A. position the steam pistons on 3/4 stroke
B. place the steam pistons in the mid-stroke position
C. ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke
D. measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same
Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?
A. Vegetable oil.
B. Graphite and oil.
C. Engine oil.
D. Oil mixed with kerosene.
When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends __________.
A. 45?? apart
B. 90?? apart
C. 120?? apart
D. 180?? apart
To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should __________.
A. use a packing hook
B. open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper
C. open the throttle valve and 'blow' the old packing out
D. do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing
Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating pump?
A. Reinforced rubber packing
B. Wire impregnated high temperature packing
C. High-pressure graphite packing
D. Low-pressure braided asbestos packing
An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.
A. decrease pump capacity
B. decrease pump cavitation
C. increase discharge pressure
D. decrease reaction ring clearance
An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by __________.
A. clogged suction strainers
B. clogged drain valves
C. scarred cylinder walls
D. defective intake valves
Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the __________.
A. pump to operate sluggishly
B. pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders
C. cushioning valves to wear
D. pistons to stop in mid-stroke
Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity?
A. Excessive suction lift
B. Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber
C. A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump
D. All of the above
A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be caused by __________.
A. lower than normal supply steam pressure
B. improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
C. loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber
D. lower than normal supply steam temperature
A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.
A. slightly opened
C. halfway opened
D. fully opened
Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?
A. Spur gear adjusters
B. Replaceable liner plates
C. Casing gear thrust bearings
D. Replaceable gib inserts
Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________.
A. these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
B. it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
C. they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift
D. stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps
What type of pump is shown in the illustration?
A. Double screw rotary pump
B. Deep well centrifugal pump
C. Simplex reciprocating pump
D. Triple screw rotary pump
Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by __________.
A. the use of shaft end caps
B. a stuffing box
C. overlapping spaces between gear teeth
D. a roller bearing
How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?
A. The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.
B. The pump can only be used for light oils.
C. The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation.
D. The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.
The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by __________.
A. changing the angle of the tilting plate
B. moving the shaft trunnion block
C. changing the speed of the pump
D. moving the slide block and rotor
One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the __________.
A. stuffing box diameter
B. pitch of the screws
C. direction of rotation of the screws
D. type of driving gears
The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an __________.
A. area for pump packing
B. passage for sealing liquid to enter the pump
C. bearing surface for the rotor shaft
D. passage for gas to be discharged
Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?
A. One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
B. The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
C. Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.
D. The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.
The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an increase in the pump __________.
A. suction pressure
B. discharge volume
C. torque rating
D. rotor clearances
Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the following operational problems?
A. The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low flow.
B. The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
C. The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
D. Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.
You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.
A. suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
B. suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
C. discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
D. discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure
Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by __________.
A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.
A. seal ring is improperly located
B. pump is not primed
C. water seal pipe is plugged
D. impeller is flooded
Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is caused by __________.
A. under-tightening the packing
B. insufficient lubrication of the packing
C. failure to seat the packing rings
D. packing ring rotation
Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of __________.
A. vapor pockets
B. steam knock
C. fluid friction
D. water hammer action
Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?
A. Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder.
B. Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest.
C. One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
D. Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.
The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.
A. centrifugal pumps
B. jet pumps
C. reciprocating pumps
D. propeller pumps
When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should be __________.
A. cycled at least once a day
B. cycled once every 4 days
C. cycled once every week
D. watched carefully while idled
When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open?
A. Water cylinder drain valve
B. Steam cylinder drain valve
C. Steam supply valve
D. Steam exhaust valve
When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves should be __________.
A. wide opened
B. 3/4 opened
C. half opened
D. almost completely closed
Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?
A. Moving tappets
B. Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder
C. Adjusting of the tappet collars
D. Stay rods
Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump?
The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by __________.
A. twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction
B. variations in the throttle adjustment
C. increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod
D. changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod
Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal facing __________.
A. away from the oil pressure being sealed
B. away from the bearing housing recess
C. toward the bearing preload washer
D. toward the oil pressure being sealed
Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?
A. They may be used in lieu of conventional packing glands for any service other than salt water.
B. Once placed into service, leakage between the dynamic seal surfaces may be reduced by monthly adjustment of the spring compression.
C. They are not suitable for use on fuel oil transfer pumps.
D. They are normally lubricated and cooled by the fluid being pumped.
Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustration?
A. notch and keyway
D. seal retaining ring
Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?
A. If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
B. Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
C. The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.
D. Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals do not require cooling.
One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that __________.
A. seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
B. it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
C. it is unsuitable for high-pressure applications
D. it is unsuitable for high temperature applications
Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants are required?
A. Water under negative pressure.
B. Water under positive pressure.
C. Oil under positive pressure.
D. Oil under negative pressure.
Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?
A. Conventional stuffing box
B. Double mechanical seal
C. Rubber bellows mechanical seal
D. External mechanical seal
Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?
A. Copper and carbon.
When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.
A. run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
B. polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly
C. make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running
D. ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces
A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the __________.
A. small size of impeller
B. ease at which the wearing rings may be changed
C. lack of moving parts
D. discharge end being smaller than the suction end
The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the __________.
Tubing is sized by __________.
A. nominal inside diameter
B. allowed working pressure
C. cross-section area
D. nominal outside diameter
Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type would offer the greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?
A. Type K
B. Type L
C. Type M
D. Type K, L and M have identical wall thicknesses
The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of __________.
A. admiralty metal
D. a resilient material
Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the illustration?
A. The valve only requires one turn of the hand wheel to fully open.
B. The valve seats cannot be replaced or repaired.
C. The valve is normally used to throttle the flow of liquid.
D. The valve is a non-rising stem design.
The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring __________.
A. no back flow
B. high-pressure drops
C. close regulation of flow
D. no pressure drops
The illustrated valve is known as a __________.
A. lift gate valve
B. butterfly lift valve
C. swing check valve
D. swing globe valve
What type of valve is shown in the illustration?
A. Check valve
B. Butterfly valve
C. Globe valve
D. Gate valve
Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping by the use of expansion joints or __________.
A. union bulkhead fittings
B. retractable flanges
C. bends or loops in the line
When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts be tightened?
A. Install and tighten bolts in pairs which are opposite each other in the flange (1-4, 2-5, and 3-6).
B. Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the counter-clockwise direction.
C. Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the clockwise direction.
D. Install and tighten bolts 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, and 6, in that order.
To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should __________.
A. cut grooves into the flange with a chisel to ensure good gasket contact
B. place the gasket over the flange and knock off the excess material with a lead mallet
C. make up the flanged joint to make an impression of the flange surfaces to insure a pattern for proper alignment
D. remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin snips
A pipe coupling is a fitting having __________.
A. outside threads on both ends
B. inside threads on both ends
C. a left-hand twist
D. outside threads on one end and inside threads on one end
Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used?
A. 3/8 inch
B. 1/2 inch
C. 5/8 inch
D. 3/4 inch
If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you should __________.
A. make up the joint without a gasket until you can check with the chief
B. check the ship's plans or manufacturer's instructions
C. turn the old gasket over and install it again
D. leave the old gasket in and cover it with Permatex
The designation 'schedule 80 extra strong' refers to __________.
A. piping wall thickness
B. tubing bursting strength
C. tensile strength of bolts
D. weight of steel plate
Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called 'pipe _____________'.
To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket __________.
A. and let cool slowly in the air
B. and quench it in oil
C. and carbonize it
D. cherry red and quench in water
Which of the following descriptions should be included when identifying the length for pipe nipples?
A. Standard, extra-strong, double extra-strong, and schedule 80
B. Close, short, long, and tank
C. Cast, wrought, stainless, and brass
D. Fully threaded, half threaded, long, and short
Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the __________.
A. outside diameter
B. wall thickness
C. threaded diameter
D. inside diameter
Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter?
A. A 3/4" pipe with a standard wall thickness.
B. A 3/4" pipe with an extra strong wall thickness.
C. A 3/4" pipe with a double extra strong wall thickness.
D. All have the same outside diameter.
To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, you should __________.
A. work the reamer side to side to dislodge it
B. tap the reamer out with a soft faced hammer
C. turn the tap wrench counter-clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer
D. turn the tap wrench clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer
Before making up a flanged joint, you should __________.
A. cut grooves in the flange face with a chisel
B. be certain that the flanges line up squarely
C. heat the pipeline to expand the bolt holes
D. have a second spare gasket on hand
A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for __________.
A. enlarging existing threads
B. straightening tapered threads
C. restoring damaged threads
D. cutting original threads
The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe __________.
B. ratchet cutter
D. stock and die
Taps and dies used for threading pipe are __________.
A. not hardened
B. not fluted
When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should __________.
A. tap the die with a hammer to break up the chips
B. continue turning until the end of the pipe has gone through the die and is flush with the die face
C. never use a lubricant
D. start the die at a slight angle with the work to create tapered threads
A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly __________.
A. center drilled
Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dope?
Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________.
A. have a first aid kit on hand
B. determine the size of the gasket
C. hang a bucket under the joint
D. be sure no pressure exists in the line
Copper coil tubing is best cut with a __________.
A. flare cutter
B. tubing cutter
C. pipe cutter
D. hand hacksaw
The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a __________.
A. flaring tool
D. swaging tool
After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should __________.
A. crimp the tube end in order to slip on the fitting
B. flare the tube before removing the burrs
C. rough up the outside surface of the tube end with a file
D. remove inside burrs with a reamer
Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed __________.
A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.
A. 90 fathoms
B. one - 15 foot segment
C. one chain link
D. one - 90 foot segment
All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted __________.
What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?
All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __________.
In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main pressure piping is provided by __________.
A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________.
A. half the breaking strength of the mooring line
B. 50% over the working tension of the mooring line
C. the full breaking strength of the mooring line
D. the maximum expected tension of the mooring line
When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________.
A. opened hydraulically and held open by spring action whenever the electrical supply is secured
B. engaged by spring action plus hydraulic pressure
C. engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure
D. released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating
The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when __________.
A. automatic operation of the winch is desired
B. minimum pull is being exerted by the winch
C. excessive loads are placed on the winch
D. wire is being retrieved at the maximum rate
If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch, and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________.
A. add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid
B. add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir
C. add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute
D. check the winch manufacturer's instruction book
Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________.
A. wear on the braking system
B. damage to the teeth
C. over speeding of the motor
D. overheating of the lube oil